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  • 13-03-2024
  • Mathematics
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Consider the sequence of functionsf_(n) (x) =x(n) fo 0<=x<=1. Show that for every x satisfying 0<=x<1 , we have lim_(n->[infinity] ) f_(n) (x) =0 , and that lim_(n->[infinity] ) f_(n) (1) =1
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