Respuesta :

The answer is YES. 
Suppose that we are factoring  like this:
[tex]f(x)=g(x)h(x)[/tex]
Then if "a" is a zero of g, meaning [tex]g(a)=0[/tex] then 
[tex]f(a)=g(a)h(a)=0\timesh(a)=0[/tex] too. 

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